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Indian Constitution Making

Asked 50 times in UPSC Prelims · first asked 1995 · last asked 2025

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With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

2025Polity
AI and II only
BII and III only
CI and III only
DI, II and III

Explanation

An Ordinance in India can amend any Central Act but cannot abridge a Fundamental Right. Additionally, an Ordinance can come into effect from a back date, allowing it to have retrospective effect.

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?

2024Polity
AC. Rajagopalachari
BDr. B.R. Ambedkar
CT.T. Krishnamachari
DDr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Explanation

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha served as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad assumed the role. Dr. Sinha presided over the Constituent Assembly from December 1946 to February 1947, playing a crucial role in the initial stages of the Constitution-making process in India.

Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India are correct? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

2024Polity
A1 and 2 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Powers of the Municipalities are provided in Part IX A of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the Municipalities. The provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX, which outlines the procedures and requirements for amending the Constitution. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

2023Polity
ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

The National Flag of India, as per the Flag Code of India, 2002, has a standard size of 6300 mm x 4200 mm. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag is 3:2. Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect as it mentions a different size, while Statement-II is correct regarding the ratio of the Flag's dimensions.

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

2023Polity
ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Explanation

The Constitution Day is indeed celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. However, the statement mentioning the setting up of a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar on 26th November, 1949, is incorrect. The Drafting Committee was actually set up on 29th August, 1947, and not on 26th November, 1949.

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred' subjects. Which of the following were treated as 'Reserved' subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police

2022Polity
A1, 2 and 3
B2, 3 and 4
C1, 3 and 4
D1, 2 and 4

Explanation

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into 'Reserved' and 'Transferred' subjects. 'Reserved' subjects included Administration of Justice, Land Revenue, and Police. These subjects were under the direct control of the Governor and not the Indian ministers responsible to the legislature.

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

2021Polity
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

In India, the power of Parliament to legislate is limited by the Constitution, unlike in the British model where Parliament is considered supreme. Additionally, in India, matters related to the constitutionality of an Act of Parliament can be referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court for review, which is a key difference from the British model.

Consider the following pairs:

2020Polity
A1 and 2 only
B4 only
C1 and 3 only
D2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

In the Alma-Ata Declaration, the focus is on the healthcare of the people. The Hague Convention deals with international child abduction. The Talanoa Dialogue addresses global climate change. The Under 2 Coalition aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions. The correct pairs are 1 and 3 only, making option (c) the correct choice.

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by any court on any ground 3. No court can declare a constitutional amendment as unconstitutional if it is passed with the procedure prescribed in the Constitution Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2019Polity
A1 and 2 only
B3 only
C2 and 3 only
DNone

Explanation

In the Constitution of India, it is stated that High Courts do not have the authority to declare central laws invalid. However, constitutional amendments can be challenged by courts based on certain grounds, such as the basic structure doctrine. If a constitutional amendment is passed following the procedures outlined in the Constitution, no court can declare it as unconstitutional. The correct answer to the question is option (d) - None of the statements given are correct.

Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of the judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2019Polity
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect as the 44th Amendment did not place the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 99th Amendment replaced the collegium system with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). However, in 2015, the Supreme Court deemed the 99th Amendment as violative of the independence of the judiciary, declaring it 'ultra vires'.

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime membership of

2019Polity
AJawaharlal Nehru
BLal Bahadur Shastri
CIndira Gandhi
DMorarji Desai

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule was incorporated into the Indian Constitution through the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, while Jawaharlal Nehru was serving as the Prime Minister.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2018Polity
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Parliament of India has the authority to include a specific law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. However, it is important to note that according to the Supreme Court ruling in the I.R. Coelho case in 2007, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule are not entirely immune from judicial review. Therefore, the second statement, which claims that no court can examine the validity of a law in the Ninth Schedule, is incorrect.

In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935, Residuary Power were given to the

2018Polity
AFederal Legislature
BGovernor General
CProvincial Legislature
DProvincial Governors

Explanation

In the federation created by The Government of India Act of 1935, the authority over residual powers was assigned to the Governor General.

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

2018Polity
AA bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
BA Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
CA Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
DA Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India

Explanation

In Article 110 of the Constitution, the criteria for a Money Bill are outlined. The UPSC has identified option 'c' as the correct answer.

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to

2016Polity
Asocial reforms
Beducational reforms
Creforms in police administration
Dconstitutional reforms

Explanation

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were reforms implemented by the British Government in India to gradually introduce self-governing institutions. These proposals were focused on constitutional reforms.

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

2015Polity
Aprotect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
Bdetermine the boundaries between States
Cdetermine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
Dprotect the interests of all the border States

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Indian Constitution are designed to safeguard the interests of Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule addresses the management and regulation of scheduled areas and tribes, while the Sixth Schedule includes rules for governing tribal regions.

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

2015Polity
AThe President of India
BThe Prime Minister of India
CThe Lok Sabha Secretariat
DThe Supreme court of India

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India is the highest court in the country. According to the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court is designated as the guardian of the Constitution.

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were

2013Polity
Adirectly elected by the people of those Provinces
Bnominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
Celected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
Dselected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Explanation

In Indian history, the members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. These provincial assembly members were themselves elected through a restricted voting system.

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

2013Polity
A1 and 2 only
B2 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In the Constitution, the bodies mentioned are the Planning Commission and Zonal Councils. The National Development Council is not mentioned in the Constitution, making it an extra-constitutional body. The Planning Commission is also non-constitutional and non-statutory. Zonal Councils were established under the states Reorganization Act of 1956, indicating that they are not constitutional bodies.

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

2012Polity
A1 and 2 only
B3, 4 and 5 only
C1, 2 and 5 only
D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

The Constitution of India includes provisions related to education in the Directive Principles of State Policy, Rural and Urban Local Bodies, Fifth Schedule, Sixth Schedule, and Seventh Schedule. These provisions highlight the importance and guidelines for education in the country.

Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces

2012Polity
A1 only
B2 and 3 only
C1 and 3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced two main features - the implementation of dyarchy in the provincial executive government and the devolution of legislative authority from the central government to the provinces. The Act did not include the establishment of separate communal electorates for Muslims. Therefore, the correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only.

Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22?

2008Polity
AConstitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
BConstitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
CConstitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
DConstitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act

Explanation

The correct Constitution Amendment Act that added four languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, bringing the total to 22 languages, is the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. This amendment included the languages Bodo, Santhali, Maithali, and Dogri in the list.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

2005Polity
A1 and 2
B2 only
C3 only
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Constitution of India comprises 20 parts and a total of 390 Articles. The Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh, and Twelfth Schedules were incorporated into the Constitution of India through the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. The correct statement among the options provided is that only the third statement is accurate.

Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

2005Polity
AB.R. Ambedkar
BJ. B. Kripalani
CJawaharalal Nehru
DAlladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru served as the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee in the Constituent Assembly.

Consider the following statements: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for: 1. the provincial autonomy. 2. the establishment of a Federal court. 3. all India Federation at the centre. Which of the statements given above are correct?

2005Polity
A1 and 2
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In the Government of India Act, 1935, the provisions included provincial autonomy, the establishment of a Federal court, and the formation of an All India Federation at the center. These changes replaced the previous Diarchy system and aimed to incorporate all British Indian provinces, chief commissioner's provinces, and Indian states. The correct statements from the options are 1, 2, and 3.

Consider the following statements: 1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property. 2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right. 3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitutional Amendment. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?

2005Polity
A2 only
B2 and 3
C1 and 3
D1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In the original constitution, Article 301 deals with Freedom of Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse. Initially, the Right to Property was considered a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f). However, the 44th Amendment Act in 1978 removed sub-clause f and introduced Article 300A, transforming the Right to Property into a legal right.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

2004Polity
AIt contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
BIt contains the languages listed in the Constitution
CIt contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
DIt allocates seats in the Council of States

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution is responsible for allocating seats in the Council of States, which is also known as the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of Parliament.

Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I: A. Article 14 B. Article 15 C. Article 16 D. Article 17 List II: 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or any of term 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India 3. 'Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in any from is forbidden 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State Codes:

2004Polity
AA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
BA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
DA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation

In this question, you are asked to match specific Articles of the Indian Constitution with their corresponding provisions. Article 14 ensures that the State does not discriminate based on religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any other grounds. Article 15 prohibits the State from denying equality before the law or equal protection of laws within India. Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in employment or appointment under the State. Article 17 abolishes 'untouchability' and prohibits its practice. The correct matching of these Articles with their provisions is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3, which is option (c). These provisions are part of the Fundamental Rights outlined in Part III of the Constitution.

Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment'?

2004Polity
AArticle 24
BArticle 45
CArticle 330
DArticle 368

Explanation

Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of fourteen in factories, mines, or any other hazardous occupations.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

2004Polity
AThe Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
BJawaharlal Nehru, M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
CThe First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
DThe Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950

Explanation

The correct statement among the options provided is that the Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946.

The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:

2003Polity
AFirst Amendment
BEighth Amendment
CNinth Amendment
DForty Second Amendment

Explanation

The Ninth Schedule was included in the Indian Constitution through the First Amendment Act of 1951, specifically focusing on Land Reforms.

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)?

2003Polity
AArticle 121
BArticle 122
CArticle 123
DArticle 124

Explanation

In 2002, the President's approval of the ordinance on electoral reforms, which was returned by the Union Cabinet without any alterations, was given under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution. This article empowers the President to issue ordinances in certain circumstances.

Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'?

2003Polity
AArticle 215
BArticle 275
CArticle 325
DArticle 355

Explanation

In the Indian Constitution, Article 355 states that the Union is responsible for safeguarding every State against external aggression and internal disturbance. It also ensures that each State's government functions in compliance with the Constitution.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: List-I (Item in the Indian Constitution): A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union List-II (Country from which it was derived): 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. Ireland 4. United Kingdom 5. United States of America Codes:

2003Polity
AA-5, B-4, C-1, D-2
BA-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
CA-5, B-4, C-2, D-1
DA-3, B-5, C-1, D-2

Explanation

The Indian Constitution draws inspiration from various countries. The Directive Principles of State Policy are derived from Ireland, Fundamental Rights from the USA, Concurrent List from Australia, and the concept of India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union from Canada. This information corresponds to the matching of List-I with List-II in the provided question. The correct matching is A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2, which is option (d).

Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?

2003Polity
AFirst
BSecond
CThird
DFourth

Explanation

The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains a list of states and union territories along with their specified territories.

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

2003Polity
AThe National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
BThe National Calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
CThe design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
DThe song 'Jana-gana-mana', composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India

Explanation

The National Song, Vande Mataram, was actually composed originally in Sanskrit, not in Bengali.

The 93rd Constitution Amendment deals with the:

2002Polity
Acontinuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
Bfree and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
Creservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
Dallocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States

Explanation

The 93rd Constitution Amendment focuses on providing free and compulsory education for all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. This means that every child falling within this age group has the right to receive education without any cost or obligation.

Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List-II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I: A. Article 16 (2) B. Article 29 (2) C. Article 30 (I) D. Article 31 (I) List-II: 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the authority of law 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them Codes:

2002Polity
AA-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
BA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
CA-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
DA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Explanation

Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are outlined in Part III, spanning from Article 14 to Article 32.

The members of the Constituent Assembly which drafted the Constitution of India were:

2002Polity
Anominated by the British Parliament
Bnominated by the Governor General
Celected by the Legislative Assemblies of various province
Delected by the Indian National Congress and Muslim League

Explanation

The individuals who were part of the Constituent Assembly responsible for drafting the Indian Constitution were chosen through an election process by the legislative assemblies of different provinces.

Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education?

2001Polity
AArticle 349
BArticle 350
CArticle 350-A
DArticle 351

Explanation

Article 350-A of the Constitution, introduced through the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956, mandates that every state and local authority must strive to offer sufficient educational opportunities in the mother tongue to children from linguistic minority groups at the primary education level.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

2001Polity
AIt lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
BIt contains the languages listed in the Constitution
CIt contains the languages listed in the Constitution
DIt allocates seats in the Council of States

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India is responsible for allocating seats in the Council of States, also known as the Rajya Sabha.

If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?

2001Polity
AFirst
BSecond
CThird
DFifth

Explanation

When creating a new state within the Indian Union, the First Schedule of the Constitution needs to be amended. This schedule lists the names of the existing States and Union Territories, so any addition or alteration would require an amendment to the First Schedule.

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Article of the Constitution): A. Article 54 B. Article 75 C. Article 155 D. Article 164 List-II (Content): 1. Election of the President of India 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister 3. Appointment of the Governor of a State 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State 5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies Codes:

2001Polity
AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
BA-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
CA-2, B-1, C-3, D-5
DA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation

In the Constitution, Article 54 deals with the election of the President of India, Article 75 pertains to the appointment of the Prime Minister, Article 155 relates to the appointment of the Governor of a State, and Article 164 covers the appointment of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers of a State. The correct match between the Articles and their content is as follows: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

The Constitution of India recognises:

1999Polity
Aonly religious minorities
Bonly linguistic minorities
Creligious and linguistic minorities
Dreligious, linguistic and ethnic minorities

Explanation

The Indian Constitution acknowledges both religious and linguistic minorities through Article 29 and 30, which cover Cultural and Educational rights. It is important to note that the Constitution does not provide a specific definition for the term "Minority."

Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India? 1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament 2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1997Polity
ANeither 1 nor 2
BBoth 1 and 2
COnly 1
DOnly 2

Explanation

In the Constitution of India, it is mentioned that the President cannot be a member of either House of Parliament, as per Article 59. Additionally, as stated in Article 79, the Parliament is composed of the President and two Houses. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct, making the correct answer option (b) - Both 1 and 2.

In the following quotation, 'WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation. In our Constituent Assembly this 'X' do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.', 'X' stands for:

1997Polity
Atwenty-sixth day of January, 1950
Btwenty-sixth day of November, 1949
Ctwenty-sixth day of January, 1949
DNone of the above

Explanation

The Constitution of India was adopted on November 26, 1949, and came into effect on January 26, 1950.

B.R. Ambedkar was elected to the Constituent Assembly from:

1996Polity
AWest Bengal
BBombay President
CMadhya Bharat
DPunjab

Explanation

B.R. Ambedkar, who resided in Bombay Presidency, was elected to the Constituent Assembly from West Bengal.

Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five year from the date on which he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced from this? 1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years Codes:

1995Polity
A1 only
B2 only
CBoth 1 and 2
DNeither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Article 156 of the Indian Constitution states that a Governor will serve a five-year term starting from the date they assume office. This means that a Governor can be in office for a maximum of five years. However, it is important to note that a Governor can resign from their position by writing to the President. Additionally, even after the completion of their term, a Governor will continue to hold office until their successor takes over. From this, it can be understood that a Governor can be removed from office before the completion of their term.

What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?

1995Polity
AThe Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
BThe Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House
CAll sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers
DIf both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the end of the tenure, Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as the President

Explanation

In the Constitution of India, there are certain practices known as conventions that are not explicitly mentioned but are followed as a norm. One such convention is that if the Prime Minister loses the majority in the Lower House, he or she is expected to resign. Conventions are informal rules that are considered binding on the government's three branches.

In which one of the following States of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for a Muslims male to have more than one living wife?

1995Polity
ANagaland
BMizoram
CGoa
DArunachal Pradesh

Explanation

In Goa, it is permissible for Hindu men to have multiple living wives, while it is prohibited for Muslim men to do the same.